http://apologeticspress.org/APContent.aspx?category=11&article=1196
What Kind of Bread did Jesus Use to Institute the Last Supper?
As one of the three major Jewish feasts, the Passover came complete
from God with strict regulations regarding the proper rituals to be
observed. Exodus 12:1-28 detailed specifically that the Passover lamb
was to be killed at twilight on the fourteenth day of the first Jewish
month (12:6). Furthermore, its blood was to be sprinkled upon the
lintels of the houses in which the Israelites ate the meal (12:7), and
the flesh of the lamb was to be roasted—not eaten boiled or raw
(12:8-9).
Numerous additional regulations pertaining to the lamb’s preparation,
the length of the feast, and various other such facets of the festival
could be cited. The one other injunction most specifically pertaining to
this discussion is found in verses 15, and 18-20. These verses
explicitly state that no leavened bread should be eaten from the 14
th
day of the month to the 21st day of the month. Verse 15 explains that
any person eating leavened bread would be “cut off from Israel” (a phase
often implying the death penalty). Verses 18-20 read as follows:
In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye
shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month
at even. Seven days shall there be no leaven found in your houses: for
whosoever eateth that which is leavened, that soul shall be cut off from
the congregation of Israel, whether he be a sojourner, or one that is
born in the land. Ye shall eat nothing leavened; in all your habitations
shall ye eat unleavened bread.
Simply put, God directly commanded Moses to warn the children of Israel
that anyone caught eating leaven during the Feast of Unleavened Bread
would be punished severely, possibly with death.
As we move approximately 1,500 years from the initial institution of
the feast, we find the Jews of Jesus’ day bound to the same regulations
and specificities as those ancient compatriots of Moses. In fact, we
find Jesus—as a faithful Jew “born under the law” (Galatians 4:4), and
abiding without sin under that same law (1 Peter 2:22)—adhering to the
proper commands of the Law of Moses. On occasion, upon healing leprous
people, Jesus instructed those individuals to present themselves to the
priest as the Law of Moses commanded (Matthew 8:4; Luke 17:12-14). The
Pharisees’ accusations of Jesus’ breaking the Sabbath notwithstanding,
Jesus lived perfectly under the Law of Moses. Since He obeyed the Law
consistently, when Jesus ate the Passover feast and celebrated the
ensuing Feast of Unleavened bread, it is a fact that He would not have
used any leaven from the 14
th day of
Nisan [originally, the first Jewish month was called Abib (see
Deuteronomy 16:1-10), but its name eventually was changed to Nisan
(Esther 3:7)] to the 21st day of that same month, as commanded in Exodus
12:15,18-20.
Therefore, it can be determined beyond any doubt that Jesus would have
used unleavened bread during the Passover meal. This fact is of utmost
importance, since the Last Supper (at which Jesus instituted the Lord’s
Supper) often is thought to have occurred on the 14
th
day of Nisan during the evening of the Passover, marking the beginning
of the Feast of Unleavened bread. If Jesus did not institute the Lord’s
Supper on the actual Passover, then there remains no biblical basis to
insist upon the use of unleavened bread during the Lord’s Supper.
The original language provides no assistance in ascertaining whether
the bread was leavened or not. The Greek word used to identify the bread
distributed by Christ at the Last Supper is
artos (Matthew 26:26; Mark 14:22; Luke 22:19; 1 Corinthians 11:24)
, which is the general word for
any kind of bread (Arndt and Gingrich, 1967, p. 110). The use of this word does not
exclude the possibility that it was unleavened bread, since the Septuagint translators the word
artos
to refer to unleavened bread (Leviticus 8:2,26). At the same time, use
of the term does not demand that it was unleavened bread. In fact,
another Greek word,
azumos, could have been used to mean strictly
unleavened bread (Arndt and Gingrich, p. 19). Therefore, from the word
used to describe the bread eaten by Jesus at the Last Supper, we can
deduce only that it could have been either leavened or unleavened. As
noted earlier, the only way to prove from the Bible that the bread was
unleavened is to verify that Jesus ate the Last Supper on the 14
th of Nisan—the actual Passover.
This may, at first, seem quite easy to establish. Matthew’s account
explicitly states: “Now on the first day of unleavened bread the
disciples came to Jesus, saying, ‘Where wilt thou that we make ready for
thee to eat the passover?’ ” (26:17). And also, “Now when even was
come, he was sitting at meat with the twelve disciples” (26:20).
According to Matthew, then, Jesus instituted the Last Supper “on the
first day of unleavened bread.” Mark’s account is equally specific and
descriptive: “And on the first day of unleavened bread, when they
sacrificed the passover, his disciples say unto him, ‘Where wilt thou
that we go and make ready that thou mayest eat the passover?’ ” (14:12).
And, as in Matthew, Mark states: “[W]hen it was evening he cometh with
the twelve” (14:17). Mark clearly declared that the Last Supper was
instituted on the first day of unleavened bread. He further defined that
day as the day when they sacrificed the Passover lamb, which would have
been the evening of the 14
th of Nisan
according to Exodus 12. Furthermore, Luke’s account is equally
definitive when it states: “And the day of unleavened bread came, on
which the passover must be sacrificed. And he sent Peter and John,
saying, ‘Go and make ready for us the passover, that we may eat’ ”
(22:7).
Were the discussion to end at this point, it would be crystal clear
that Jesus instituted the Lord’s Supper on the evening of the first day
of Unleavened Bread when the Passover lamb was sacrificed. But when
John’s account is consulted, the picture seems to get a little fuzzy.
John’s record certainly is not as specific as the other three. In John
13:1-4, we read:
Now before the feast of the passover, Jesus knowing that his hour was
come that he should depart out of this world unto his Father, having
loved his own that were in the world, he loved them unto the end. And
during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas
Iscariot, Simon’s son, to betray him, Jesus, knowing that the Father had
given all the things into his hands, and that he came forth from God,
and goeth unto God, riseth from supper, and layeth aside his garments;
and he took a towel, and girded himself.
Apparently, the thoughts of Jesus recorded in John 13:1 occurred
sometime before the Feast of the Passover. How long before the feast is
unknown, but some assume it means at least a day. That time frame is
based upon other statements found in the book of John. In John 18:28,
the chief priests and the leaders of the Jews “led Jesus therefore from
Caiaphas into the Praetorium: and it was early; and they themselves
entered not into the Praetorium, that they might not be defiled, but
might eat the passover.” If “the passover” in this verse means the Feast
of the Passover lamb, which was eaten on the first day of the Feast of
Unleavened bread, then that would mean the Last Supper Jesus celebrated
with His disciples occurred about 24 hours earlier. Furthermore, John
19:14-18 states:
Now it was the Preparation of the passover: it was about the
sixth hour. And he saith unto the Jews, “Behold, your King!” They
therefore cried out, “Away with him, away with him, crucify him!” Pilate
saith unto them, “Shall I crucify your King?” The chief priests
answered, “We have no king but Caesar.” Then therefore he delivered him
unto them to be crucified. They took Jesus therefore: and he went out,
bearing the cross for himself, unto the place called the place of a
skull, which is called in Hebrew, Golgotha: where they crucified him,
and with him two others, on either side one, and Jesus in the midst
(emp. added).
Those who believe that the events of John 13 happened at least a day
before the Passover generally base that belief on the idea that John
19:14-18 seems to indicate that Jesus was crucified before the actual
Passover, since it was the “
preparation of the passover.”
Several of the early church fathers held to the belief that Jesus was
crucified on the Passover, which would mean that the Last Supper
occurred before the Feast of Unleavened bread. Tertullian (
An Answer to the Jews, Chapter 8) and Clement of Alexandria (
Paschal Chronicle Fragment)
both took this view. Furthermore, in the Talmud, early Jewish rabbis
concluded that Jesus was “hanged on Passover Eve for heresy and
misleading the people” (Bruce, 1960, p. 101). In more recent times, many
have advocated this view. The editors of the
Pulpit Commentary wrote: “It appears that our Lord was crucified on the 14
th of Nisan,
on the very day of the sacrifice of the Paschal Lamb,
a few hours before the time of the Paschal Supper, and that his own
Last Supper was eaten the night before, that is, twenty-four hours
before the general time of eating the Passover Supper” (Spence and
Exell, n.d., pp. 196-197, emp. in orig.).
In his book,
Radical Restoration, F. LaGard Smith mentioned some
things that, in his opinion, seem to conflict with the idea that Jesus
ate the Passover on the actual first day of unleavened bread. He
commented:
The emerging picture tends to suggest that we may have misinterpreted
the words with which Jesus began the Last Supper. It may well be that
Jesus was not expressing his eagerness to eat the actual Passover, but his desire to eat the only “Passover” he could share with his disciples before he suffered.
Which is to say, ahead of time. The day before. On the only evening
left before his crucifixion. (2001, p. 280, emp. in orig.).
To further bolster the idea that the Last Supper might not have been taken during the Feast of Unleavened bread, Smith cited
The Crux of the Matter
by Childers, Foster, and Reese, who suggested that “from the ninth
century, the common bread, leavened bread, was replaced by unleavened
bread. Using regular table bread had been the practice of the churches
for centuries of Christian worship from very early days” (2001, p. 38).
McClintock and Strong observed:
At the institution of the Lord’s Supper Christ used unleavened bread.
The primitive Christians carried with them the bread and wine for the
Lord’s Supper, and took the bread which was used at common meals, which
was leavened bread. When this custom ceased, together with the Agapè,
the Greeks retained the leavened bread, while in the Latin Church the
unleavened bread became common since the 8th century. Out of this
difference a dogmatic controversy in the 11th century arose, the Greek
Church reproaching the Latin for the use of unleavened bread, making it
heresy. At the Council of Florence, in 1439, which attempted to unite
both churches, it was agreed that either might be used… (1969, 5:514,
emp. in orig.).
Even though McClintock and Strong stated that Christ used unleavened
bread, they also documented that many of those in the early period of
the church did not use unleavened bread—a fact that could be used to add
credence to the possibility that Christ also did not use unleavened
bread.
Obviously, the battle over which type of bread Christ used when He
instituted the Last Supper has been going on for centuries. Is there any
way to reconcile the accounts of Matthew, Mark, and Luke with that of
John? Can it be established,
from the biblical text, on what day
Christ and His disciples ate their final meal before His death? The
answer is a resounding “yes.” Christ instituted the Lord’s Supper on the
first day of unleavened bread, when the Passover lamb was to be
killed—exactly as Matthew, Mark, and Luke plainly state.
THE PREPARATION DAY
In order to maintain that Christ ate the Last Supper on the first day
of unleavened bread, a response must be formulated to the passage in
John 19:14-18, which seems to indicate that Christ was crucified on the
“Preparation of the Passover.” First, it must be noted that Matthew,
Mark, and Luke each state that Christ was crucified on the “day of
preparation.” Matthew, in speaking of the day after Jesus’ crucifixion,
affirmed: “Now on the morrow, which is the day after the Preparation,
the chief priests and the Pharisees were gathered together unto Pilate,
saying, ‘Sir, we remember that that deceiver said while he was yet
alive, After three days I rise again’ ” (Matthew 27:62-63). Mark’s
account, in dealing with the day of Jesus’ crucifixion, observed: “And
when even was now come, because it was the Preparation, that is, the day
before the sabbath, there came Joseph of Arimathaea, a councillor of
honorable estate, who also himself was looking for the kingdom of God;
and he boldly went in unto Pilate, and asked for the body of Jesus”
(15:42-43). Not only did Mark specify the day of Jesus’ crucifixion as
“the Preparation,” but he also defined that day for his readers as “the
day before the Sabbath.” Finally, Luke related virtually the same facts
in 23:50-54:
And behold, a man named Joseph, who was a councillor, a good and
righteous man (he had not consented to their counsel and deed), a man of
Arimathaea, a city of the Jews, who was looking for the kingdom of God:
this man went to Pilate, and asked for the body of Jesus. And he took
it down, and wrapped it in a linen cloth, and laid him in a tomb that
was hewn in stone, where never man had yet lain. And it was the day of
the Preparation, and the sabbath drew on.
Observe that Matthew, Mark, and Luke describe the day of Jesus’ death
as the day of preparation of the Sabbath. Even John, in 19:31, stated:
“The Jews therefore, because it was the Preparation, that the bodies
should not remain on the cross upon the sabbath (for the day of that
sabbath was a high day), asked of Pilate that their legs might be
broken, and that they might be taken away.” Because the Jews could do no
work on the Sabbath, the day
before provided them with the only
opportunity to prepare for the following day’s meals. In Exodus 16, the
Lord, through Moses, instructed the Israelites regarding how and when
they should gather the manna that He was sending from heaven. In verses 4
and 5 of that chapter, the Lord stated:
Behold, I will rain bread from heaven for you; and the people shall go
out and gather a day’s portion every day, that I may prove them,
whether they will walk in my law, or not. And it shall come to pass on
the sixth day, that they shall prepare that which they bring in, and it
shall be twice as much as they gather daily.
The “Preparation Day” was a well-known description used to speak of the
day before the Sabbath. However, it was not used to describe a day
before a festival or feast. Lenski accurately recorded:
Equally decisive is the fact that paraskeua [preparation—KB]
is never used in the sense of “the preparation” or of “the day of
preparation” for a festival but only in the sense of the preparation for
the Sabbath. The law provided complete rest from work only on the
Sabbath (Exodus 16:5); all preparation of food had to be made on the day
before; but the law provided nothing of the kind for the great festival
days, for on these days (save as one might occur on the Sabbath) food
could be cooked as on any other day. The attempt to show that the
festival days also had a paraskeua has failed completely (1998, p. 1272).
What, then, shall we make of John’s statement that Jesus was crucified
on “the Preparation of the Passover?” At first glance, we assume that
John means that the “preparation” concerns the actual Passover lamb.
However,
that assumption is not correct. The “preparation” described by John simply was
the day before the Sabbath that fell during the Passover festival. Lenski noted: “When John uses the exceptional combination
paraskuea tou pascha,
‘Preparation of the Passover,’ he simply has in mind the Friday of the
Passover festival, the one that occurs during the festival week. The
Sabbath of this great week was considered especially holy, and
preparation was made accordingly” (p. 1271).
In fact, the translators of the
NIV were so
confident of this meaning that they rendered the verse: “It was the day
of Preparation of Passover week, about the sixth hour.” In their
commentary on the
NIV passage, Bryant and Krause remarked:
The force of the NIV’s interpretation is that
this is “Friday of Passover Week.” While this may be what John intends
(and I believe he does), it is possible to interpret this as
“Preparation for the Passover,” i.e., Thursday. This is the translation
of the NRSV and others, but this is every bit as guilty as the NIV
of overtranslation…. Actually, the text is ambiguous and cannot answer
the day of the week by itself. It is from other considerations that we
should conclude that this is Friday… (1998, p. 376).
If John 19:14-18 could mean simply the preparation day during the
Passover feast, then John’s timetable would match perfectly with that of
the other three Gospels—almost.
THAT THEY “MIGHT EAT THE PASSOVER”
In order to match John’s timetable perfectly with Matthew, Mark, and
Luke, the passage in John 18:28 must be clarified. It states: “They led
Jesus therefore from Caiaphas into the Praetorium: and it was early; and
they themselves entered not into the Praetorium, that they might not be
defiled, but might eat the passover.” If this reference to eating “the
passover” refers to the actual Passover lamb that was sacrificed on the
14
th day of Nisan, then John’s account
would stand in direct opposition to those of the other three gospel
writers. It can been shown conclusively, however, that John did not
necessarily mean the actual Passover lamb, and that his statement can
refer instead to the Feast of Unleavened bread directly
following the Passover.
First, it should be noted that John was not nearly as specific as the
other the gospel writers. As was discussed earlier, they defined the day
of the Last Supper as
the first day of unleavened bread on which the passover must be sacrificed. [It is interesting to observe that Luke 22:7 uses the Greek word
dei, which the
ASV translators render as
must.
Arndt and Gingrich noted that the word means “of compulsion of law or
custom,” and then used Luke 22:7 to illustrate this usage. They
translated the pertinent part of the verse under discussion: “when the
paschal lamb
had to be sacrificed” (1967, p. 172). Which law or custom
compelled
the Jews to sacrifice the Passover lamb on this particular day? The
obvious answer is: the law set forth in Exodus 12.] John’s reference to
the Jewish leaders’ eating the Passover certainly does not detail an
exact day on which the Passover lamb “must” be sacrificed.
As further evidence that John’s reference does not necessarily mean the 14
th day of Nisan, the term “Passover” sometimes was used to refer to
the entire Feast of Unleavened bread,
not just the eating of the Passover lamb. Luke 22:1 is an obvious and
clear example of such usage: “Now the feast of unleavened bread drew
nigh, which is called the Passover.” Other passages that support this
usage are John 2:13,23, 5:4, 11:55, and Acts 12:1-4. Josephus, in
Antiquities of the Jews,
wrote about an event happening “at the time when the feast of
unleavened bread was celebrated, which we call the Passover” (14:2:1).
Thus, the term “Passover” often had a more relaxed meaning, and could
refer to the “feast of unleavened bread.” To add support to this
conclusion, Lenski made an interesting observation:
In the present connection it is impossible to make the eating of the
Passover mean the eating of the Paschal lamb. For the defilement which
these Jews feared would not have debarred them from eating the Paschal
lamb if this lamb was to be eaten on Friday evening. Defilement of this
type lasted only until sundown and could then be removed by a bath. The
Paschal Lamb was not eaten until some time after sundown (1998, p.
1213).
With a quick look back into the Old Testament, we find that many of the
things that “defiled” people, or caused them to be “unclean,” lasted
only until evening (see Leviticus chapters 11 and 15). From reading
Numbers 9:10,13, it seems that, according to the Law of Moses, the only
two reasons a man might be unable to keep the feast would be because he
had touched a dead body or was away on a journey. Since neither of those
two situations seems to apply to John 18:28, the passage certainly
allows for the phrase “eat the passover” to mean something other than
the Paschal lamb. In his concluding comments on John 18:28, Lenski
summarized remarks from Zahn’s
Introduction to the New Testament by stating:
It is quite incredible to believe that with an entirely incidental
expression, not at all connected with the Passover as such or with the
actions of Jesus but solely with the scruples of the Jews, John should
wish to overthrow a view of his readers which he has left entirely
undisturbed throughout all of his preceding chapters (p. 1214).
What, then, were the Jewish leaders specifically desiring to eat? Zahn
observed: “Moreover, it is probable that the members of the Sanhedrin
had specifically in mind the so-called Chagigah, the sacrificial meal of
the 15th of Nisan, which, unlike the Passover meal, was held during the
course of the day and not after sundown” (1953, 3:283). Thus, there
remains nothing to require that the phrase “might eat the passover” in
John 18:28 must mean the actual Passover lamb.
TWO MINOR DISAGREEMENTS ANSWERED
In concluding the discussion as to the actual time of the Passover,
John 13:1 needs to be revisited. In the verse, John wrote, “Now before
the feast of the Passover….” It already has been established that
certain schools of thought take this verse to mean at least 24 hours
before the Passover. This time frame often is based on assumptions
regarding John 18:28 and 19:31—assumptions that I have shown to be
incorrect. Therefore, based on the textual evidence of the actual verse,
can the phrase “before the feast of the passover” mean only a few
minutes before the actual feast, or must it mean several hours? Morris
concisely commented: “It is not impossible to understand this as meaning
that Jesus knew certain things long before the feast. But it can also
be understood to mean that the events now to be described took place
before the feast began” (1971, p. 776). Bryant and Krause further
clarified the situation:
John notes the time of the next event as just before the Passover Feast.
According to ancient Jewish reckoning, the Passover Feast day would
have run from sundown Thursday until sundown on Friday. This has caused
some scholars to take the position that John understands the “Last
Supper” to have taken place on Wednesday evening, just before Passover.
This cannot be reconciled with the Synoptic accounts, which clearly
identify the Last Supper as a Passover meal (e.g., Luke 22:15). But this
is an easily explained contradiction. John does not say “the day before
Passover” but “just before.” The episode he relates next, Jesus washing
the disciples’ feet, is done immediately before the meal really begins
(1998, p. 285, emp. in orig.).
“Before the Passover” could mean months, days, hours, or seconds before
the meal took place. Considering all the evidence, John 13:1 makes
reference to only a few minutes before the actual Passover lamb was
eaten.
The second minor disagreement that needs to be answered suggests that John placed Jesus’
death on the 14
th
of Nisan, the evening when the Passover lamb was to be killed, in order
to symbolize the death of Jesus as the Passover Lamb. Other New
Testament verses linking Christ to the Passover lamb often are used in
support of this view. For instance, 1 Corinthians 5:7 states: “Purge out
the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, even as ye are unleavened.
For our passover also hath been sacrificed, even Christ.“
While it is true that various New Testament writers refer to Christ as
our Passover Lamb, it is not true that the power of His atoning blood
was conditioned on the actual day that it was shed. As Zahn stated:
The conception of Christ as the Paschal Lamb which is found throughout
the N.T. is in no way based upon this alleged coincidence of the hour
of Jesus’ death with the time of the slaying of the Passover lamb, but
was involved in the view that redemption under the new covenant was the
counterpart of the deliverance from Egypt, and found merely a natural
point of connection in the fact that Jesus died at the time of the
Jewish Passover, and not, for example, during the feast of Tabernacles
(John 7:2-10) [1953, 3:276].
Furthermore, to suppose that there is a clash between John and the synoptics—based upon what a person
assumes John was attempting to symbolize—is a less than desirable conclusion and fails to give John the benefit of the doubt.
A DISTANT POSSIBILITY MENTIONED,
BUT NOT DISCUSSED IN DETAIL
In an attempt to “help” John agree with the three other gospel writers,
some have suggested that a difference in calendars might have caused
the apparent confusion. In summarizing this view, Carson wrote:
These difficulties have led to a number of suggested resolutions that
turn on calendrical disputes in the first century. The most important of
these reconstructions, that of Jaubert, argues that Jesus and his
disciples followed a solar calendar…. But the “official” calendar
followed by the Pharisees and Sadducees in the Jerusalem establishment
was lunar... (1991, p. 457).
After he summarized the main issues, Carson further noted: “these
calendrical theories all involve delicate historical judgments or a
paucity of hard evidence” (457). He concluded his section on the alleged
calendar differences by saying:
More seriously, it is altogether unlikely that the Jewish authorities
in the time of Jesus sanctioned the slaughter of paschal lambs on any
day other than the official lunar day. Thus even if Jesus and his
disciples followed a sectarian calendar—a very doubtful suggestion—they
would not have been able to eat an early paschal meal, since the paschal
lamb had to be slaughtered at the temple, and the priestly classes were
not noted for affable flexibility (p. 457).
Furthermore, once the full meanings of the phrases “eat the Passover”
in John 18:28 and “the Preparation of the Passover” in John 19:14 are
explored, it becomes evident that the statements can be reconciled with
the time table set forth in the other three gospels, without resorting
to “calendrical theories.”
CONCLUSION
The exact day on which the Lord instituted the Last Supper is of utmost importance for two reasons: (1) If it was not on the 14
th
day of Nisan, when the Passover lamb was to be killed (marking the
first day of the Feast of Unleavened bread), then very little (if any)
textual evidence exists that would demand the use of unleavened bread
for the Lord’s Supper; and (2) the failure to reconcile adequately the
time frame given by Matthew, Mark, and Luke with that given by John
would indicate that there might be a contradiction in the Bible, which
would leave the door open for skeptics to attack the reliability of the
New Testament.
Yet, when the arguments are laid bare, it is evident that Jesus and the disciples did eat the Last Supper on the 14
th
day of Nisan, when the Passover lamb was to be killed. Once this fact
is established, no one can legitimately deny that Jesus broke
unleavened
bread for His disciples. Nor can anyone claim that a contradiction
exists between John’s timetable and that of the other gospel writers.
REFERENCES
Arndt, William and F.W. Gingrich (1967),
A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago, IL: University of Chicago Press).
Bruce, F.F. (1960),
The New Testament Documents—Are They Reliable? (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans), fifth edition.
Bryant, Beauford H. and Mark S. Krause (1998),
John, The College Press
NIV Commentary, ed. Jack Cottrell and Tony Ash (Joplin, MO: College Press).
Carson, D.A. (1991),
The Gospel According to John, The Pillar New Testament Commentary, ed. D.A. Carson (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans).
Childers, Jeff W., Douglas A. Foster, and Jack R. Reese (2001),
The Crux of the Matter (Abilene, TX: ACU Press).
Clement of Alexandria (no date),
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URL: http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0211.htm.
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The Works of Josephus, transl. William Whiston (Peabody, MA: Hendrickson).
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Radical Restoration (Nashville, TN: Cotswold).
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